Clinical Audiology 2 Exam 1 Practice

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• Interaural level differences (ILDs) in audiometry are used to understand speech and localization. Which statement correctly describes ILD?
• What does Differential Amplification (Common Mode Rejection) achieve in neural measurements?
• Which gender voice is used for QuickSIN stimuli?
• Real-ear measurements (REM) are used in fitting to verify that the device output matches prescribed targets.
• Wave II of the ABR is generated by which structure?
• Which arrangement mimics SNHL on pure-tone audiometry differentiating using objective measures?
• What are the optimal primary tone parameters for DPOAE primary stimulation (f2/f1 ratio and L1/L2 levels)?
• In Meniere's disease, what does an abnormally enlarged SP/AP ratio indicate?
• Which statement about DPOAEs is correct?
• Which pathology is associated with a high resonant frequency shift?
• Which tympanogram type indicates normal middle-ear pressure and mobility?
• CRM uses which task format?
• What are the key steps in cochlear implant mapping, including T-level and M-level adjustments?
• Which ABR marker is most indicative of a retrocochlear lesion?
• Which condition would produce a low resonant frequency shift?
• Which modulation rate in ASSR originates from the brainstem and remains during sleep?
• What is the primary clinical use of the SCAN-C beyond diagnosing disorders?
• Differentiate cVEMP and oVEMP in terms of anatomy, stimulus, and what each test assesses about vestibular function.
• Tympanometric W-Notching is described by which statement?
• Which combination best distinguishes cholesteatoma-related chronic otitis media from simple otitis media?
• The MRT80 test uses a factorial design varying which factors?
• At the middle ear resonant frequency, which condition is true?
• What is the role of vestibular-evoked myogenic potentials (VEMP) in vestibular assessment?
• What stimulus and input method does the Digits-in-Noise (DIN) test use?
• How do immittance findings differ between otitis media with effusion and otosclerosis, and how would this influence management?
• The ABR is best described as which of the following?
• What is the SCAN-C, and what aspect of auditory processing does it screen?
• Which test uses IEEE sentences spoken by a female speaker as target stimuli (5 target words per sentence)?
• Which statement describes a clinical advantage of ASSR over ABR?
• SRT is the minimum intensity at which what percentage of spondaic words are correctly identified?
• Which combination describes ESII's design approach?
• Cerumen can affect resonant frequency by which statement?
• Which statement best describes the QuickSIN test's materials and scoring?
• What is Time-Domain Signal Averaging?
• WRQ inadequacy: which statement is true?
• What is the stimulus presentation for ACT?
• What is the clinical role of otoacoustic emissions in neonatal hearing screening and in adults with suspected cochlear pathology?
• ABR waves I–V reflect activity from which structures?
• Which test uses NU No. 6 monosyllabic words in multi-talker babble with zero context?
• Type C tympanogram indicates which condition?
• In a CRM scenario, which elements are identified in the target phrase?
• The ACT test characteristics: language-independent and rapid.
• Which patient population benefits most from Chirp-ABR in threshold estimation?
• Mismatch Negativity occurs at which approximate latency and does not require what?
• Which imaging modalities are useful for identifying cholesteatoma in suspected chronic otitis media?
• AFFD evaluates functional hearing during Hearing-Critical workplace tasks in what type of noise environments?
• Middle Latency Response (MLR) is characterized by which latency range and which waves?
• Which statement about 80 Hz ASSR is true?
• Which combination of objective measures is most helpful to differentiate nonorganic hearing loss from true SNHL?
• Which audiogram pattern is characterized by an air-bone gap with normal bone conduction?
• What is the target task in the Coordinate Response Measure (CRM)?
• Which feature does ESII incorporate to predict speech intelligibility in fluctuating or gated noise?
• What is the difference between a direct waveform ABR and a Chirp-ABR, and why might a Chirp stimulus be used?
• In the Acoustic Reflex Decay Test, a 500 or 1000 Hz tone is presented for 10 seconds at 10 dB SL above reflex threshold. A drop in amplitude of what percentage within 10 seconds indicates an 8th nerve retrocochlear lesion?
• Wave IV of the ABR is attributed to activity in which structure?
• Which statement best describes hidden hearing loss?
• In ABR testing, which pattern would most strongly suggest a retrocochlear lesion when pure-tone thresholds are within normal limits?
• What potentials does electrocochleography measure, and within what time window after an abrupt click stimulus?
• Which statement best describes how later potentials behave during sleep?
• Name two central auditory processing assessments and describe what they measure.
• Hidden hearing loss refers to cochlear synaptopathy and may present as what?
• How do bone-anchored hearing aids (BAHA) differ from conventional hearing aids, and in what clinical scenarios are they used?
• Wideband Tympanometry (WBT) pressure compensation compares ambient absorbance to peak-pressure compensated absorbance. What does equalizing pressure do?
• WIN test uses:
• What psychophysical procedure does the HINT test use to determine threshold?
• What is the structure of the Military Occupational Hearing Test (MRT80)?
• Which finding on impedance testing is most concerning for electrode misplacement or device malfunction?
• If unaided threshold is 55 dB HL and aided threshold is 25 dB HL at a given frequency, what is the functional gain?
• DPOAEs are absent if SNHL exceeds what threshold?
• Real-ear measurement is essential for fitting today’s hearing aids because it does what?
• The P300 wave is typically elicited in which experimental paradigm?
• What happens to impedance at the resonant frequency?
• How does the ACT test account for a patient's pure-tone hearing loss?
• What does using a resonant frequency cut-off of 1025 Hz provide for detecting otosclerosis?
• What is the P300 Oddball Paradigm?
• What essential elements should be documented during a hearing aid fitting in an adult to ensure a successful outcome?
• What tympanometric pattern is commonly associated with otosclerosis, and what does it indicate?
• Which method is commonly used to estimate ABR thresholds in infants when waves are not clearly visible?
• Contralateral OAE efferent suppression is defined as:
• What is Differential Amplification?
• QuickSIN test uses:
• ECochG measures bioelectric potentials from hair cells and the 8th nerve within 5 ms of a click. Includes SP and AP/Wave I. What does ECochG measure?
• DPOAEs can measure distortion products up to which upper frequency?
• How do cochlear implants influence speech perception in noise, and what rehabilitation strategies support improvement?
• Which test uses BKB sentences in multi-talker babble designed for children and CI candidates?
• What scale and zero-reference are used to score the ACT test?
• Which statement describes the BKB-SIN presentation for the test?
• Which combination best represents the basic candidacy criteria for cochlear implantation in adults?
• Explain the differences between directionality and noise reduction in modern hearing aids, including typical limitations.
• How is speech in noise typically evaluated in clinic, and what does it tell you about a patient’s functional hearing?
• SRT typically correlates with PTA within about which dB range?
• In ECochG, which measurement is used as a primary diagnostic marker for endolymphatic hydrops in Menière's disease?
• Which SIN test uses 4-talker babble as background noise?
• What is the role of imaging in cochlear implant candidacy?
• If middle-ear mass increases, what happens to the resonant frequency?
• In hearing conservation, what are commonly recommended exposure guidelines and how should clinicians counsel patients?
• What range of dB nCL indicates normal contrast sensitivity?
• MRT80 test uses which structure?
• How is the acoustic reflex elicited, and what can an absent or elevated reflex indicate?
• The Audible Contrast Threshold (ACT) test is characterized by being:
• What is the purpose of dB nHL to dB eHL correction factors in ABR testing?
• Peak-Compensated Static Admittance (Y_ME) is defined as the net middle ear admittance measured at peak pressure and is calculated as Y_TOTAL minus Y_OE. What is the normal adult range?
• The SPRINT test presents 200 NU-6 monosyllabic words in what background condition and how is performance scored?
• Which option is NOT a typical ABR indicator of retrocochlear pathology?
• If OAEs are present but ABR is abnormal or absent, what pattern might this indicate?
• What presentation paradigm and fixed level are used in the WIN test?
• How does rotary chair testing complement calorics in vestibular assessment?
• In which populations is speech-evoked auditory brainstem response particularly useful?
• The MRT80 test uses what kind of noise?
• Which of the following is NOT a sign of retrocochlear pathology in ABR testing?
• What is auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder (ANSD), and how might ABR and OAE findings appear?
• In cochlear implant management, impedance checks primarily assess what aspect?
• DPOAEs rely on which distortion product for measurement?
• Which is NOT an advantage of ASSR over ABR?
• Which scenario is a typical indication for a BAHA?
• How is functional gain for a child using a hearing aid calculated, and what does it indicate?
• Which latency window best describes the Middle Latency Response (MLR)?
• Which of the following are categorized as later potentials in auditory evoked potential terminology?
• What does the Diagnostic Paradox imply about high-context speech-in-noise tests?
• Which waves are characteristic of the Middle Latency Response (MLR)?
• Which test uses BKB-SIN sentences and is often used in pediatric populations?
• Which test directly assesses utricular function and typically uses contralateral extraocular muscle responses with loud stimuli?
• How does age-related hearing loss typically present on an audiogram, and what management considerations are important?
• Which two SIN tests provide an 8-10 dB separation between normal-hearing and hearing-loss groups?
• ABR Waveform Generators: Waves I and II are generated by which anatomical structures?
• Which scenario produces a high resonant frequency shift?
• What is the role of vestibulo-ocular reflex testing in vestibular assessment, and what might an abnormal result indicate?
• How do ABR interpeak latency I–V values change with decreasing stimulus intensity, and what does an abnormal prolonged I–V indicate?
• TEOAEs use clicks to evaluate which frequency range?
• Which statement correctly contrasts the WIN and QuickSIN tests?
• From which brain structures does the Middle Latency Response primarily originate?
• Which statement best describes a limitation of 226 Hz tympanometry?
• What is the reported AUC accuracy range for the DIN test?
• In infants, ABR threshold is typically estimated by identifying the lowest level at which a repeatable wave V (or clear I–V complex) is detectable.
• In ABR assessment, which latency measure is commonly used as an indicator of retrocochlear pathology?
• Which of the following is a correct listing of the waves associated with the Middle Latency Response (MLR)?
• Masking should be used for air-conduction testing when the test-ear threshold is poorer than the non-test-ear threshold by more than what transducer interaural attenuation?
• Which statement about ABR state dependency is true?
• Which measurement quantifies middle-ear admittance at peak pressure?
• What is the primary scoring metric for the SPRINT test?
• Which ABR type is preferred for neuro-diagnostic tumor screening because it provides high basal-turn neural synchrony?
• Tympanometry provides information about eustachian tube function and middle-ear status.
• Limitations of BKB-SIN and HINT: which statement is correct?
• In cochlear implant mapping, what is T-level?
• Which statement correctly contrasts MMN and P300?
• ABR Waveform Generators: Waves III, IV, and V are generated by which structures?
• Long Latency Response (LLR) is a cortical evoked potential with which latencies and which waves, and what does it reflect?
• Which statement best describes how later potentials are affected by sleep and sedation compared to ABR and 80 Hz ASSR?
• What is the primary rationale for implementing a newborn hearing screening program?
• What is Time-Domain Signal Averaging?
• Which vestibular test is less affected by patient cooperation and provides objective measures of vestibulo-ocular reflex gain and phase across a range of rotation frequencies?
• Which two SIN tests provide only a 4-6 dB separation between NH and HL groups?
• Regarding ASSR modulation rates, which statement correctly contrasts 80 Hz and 40 Hz responses?
• What best describes the Summating Potential (SP) in ECochG?
• What is a typical newborn hearing screening protocol?
• Tympanometric peak pressure (TPP) is used to interpret middle-ear health. What is the typical normal range?
• What does the Diagnostic Paradox imply about high-context speech-in-noise tests?
• What does caloric testing assess in the vestibular system and what would a unilateral caloric weakness indicate?
• What distinguishes Click ABR from Tone-Burst ABR?
• Which description best characterizes the digits-in-noise (DIN) test?
• What ABR pattern might suggest an acoustic neuroma or other retrocochlear pathology?
• Describe a typical approach to evaluating and managing a patient with suspected hidden hearing loss (cochlear synaptopathy).
• What does QuickSIN assess in clinical practice?
• Which ABR wave is primarily generated by the inferior colliculus?
• What factors influence cochlear implant candidacy beyond audiometric thresholds?
• ABR Waves are far-field potentials that occur within what time frame post-stimulus?
• Why might a frequency-lowering feature be beneficial in a hearing aid and in which patient populations is it typically considered?
• In pediatric fitting, why is the real-ear-to-coupler difference (RECD) important and how is it used?
• Which methods are commonly used to verify that mapping achieves audibility and appropriate loudness?
• How is Auditory Steady-State Response (ASSR) best defined?
• Wideband Power Absorbance represents energy absorbed by the middle ear from 250 to 8000 Hz. What is the normal absorbance peak range?
• Pre-Neural Origin of OAEs refers to emissions generated by which mechanism?
• Explain binaural advantage in masking and its clinical relevance when testing for unilateral hearing loss.
• How is the SPRINT test scored compared to QuickSIN or HINT?
• Mismatch Negativity (MMN) is characterized by which latency and attentional requirement?
• What is the role of bone-conduction devices (e.g., BAHA) in single-sided deafness and in mixed hearing loss?
• Auditory Brainstem Response (ABR) is best described as which of the following?
• The Dual-Deficit Model of SNHL proposes that sensorineural hearing loss involves:
• What is the fixed level for the WIN test?
• Contralateral OAE efferent suppression behavior: which statement is correct?
• What is the primary clinical advantage of the Digits-in-Noise (DIN) test?
• Values greater than 4 dB nCL indicate what?
• 80 Hz vs 40 Hz ASSR rates: which statement is true?
• Which pattern describes conductive hearing loss?
• Which SIN test uses 6-talker babble as background noise?
• What is the auditory brainstem response to speech (Speech-ABR), and what does it assess?
• The Long Latency Response (LLR) reflects activity in which cortical region, as indicated by which waves?
• The P300 wave is best described as which of the following?
• How many target words per sentence are used in QuickSIN?
• Which tympanometry patterns are commonly associated with otitis media with effusion?
• What presentation paradigm is used in QuickSIN?
• Tone-burst ABR is primarily used for which purpose?
• Which SIN test uses Speech-Spectrum Noise (SSN) as background noise?
• In the WIN test, what range is used for S/B and step size, calculated via Spearman-Kärber?
• What is the purpose of real-ear aided response (REAR) measurements?